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Toughest GCSE question ever?

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  • RLT16RLT16 Member Posts: 1,433
    edited June 2015
    the whole sweet siuation is irrelevant as is the 1/3 odds of her picking out 2 of the same colour. just take the equasion and reverse it.
    you know u have to subtract the 90 at the end to = 0
    so u know that N^2 - N = 90 so its simply a case of finding which number fits, even if it isnt obvious straight away u could quite simply just work ur way through each number until u find the one that works.

    i think if they had asked the question without the silly girl and her sweets this wouldnt of been brought up. simple question IMO, but then again i always did like maths :)

    btw the answer is 10
  • FCHDFCHD Member Posts: 3,178
    edited June 2015
    The answer isn't 10 because "how many sweets are there?" isn't the question.
  • RLT16RLT16 Member Posts: 1,433
    edited June 2015
    In Response to Re: Toughest GCSE question ever?:
    The answer isn't 10 because "how many sweets are there?" isn't the question.
    Posted by FCHD
    ah u are correct my bad
  • gerardirlgerardirl Member Posts: 1,299
    edited June 2015
    A question is always very simple if you give the answer you want...instead of answering the actual questions lol.

    The real question for me is ....what happened the rest of the sweets!
  • FCHDFCHD Member Posts: 3,178
    edited June 2015
    In Response to Re: Toughest GCSE question ever?:
    A question is always very simple if you give the answer you want...instead of answering the actual questions lol. The real question for me is ....what happened the rest of the sweets!
    Posted by gerardirl
    Anna Fowler had them.
  • CHILLIECHILLIE Member Posts: 432
    edited June 2015
    I hope the kids that got this question right was able to use this in every day life,but somehow i doubt it.
  • HENDRIK62HENDRIK62 Member Posts: 3,234
    edited June 2015
    In Response to Re: Toughest GCSE question ever?:
    To further explain, bearing in mind I'm just a grunt.. There are six orange sweets in the bag, so the odds of picking the first orange sweet is 6 divided by the number of sweets. We don't know that figure, so it's called 'N' (or x or y or z or anything). The chances of picking a second sweet are now five (one orange sweet less) divided by the number of sweets left in the bag, which is the total minus the one taken out (i.e. N-1) To get the chances for both sweets being orange, which are co-dependent, the chances are multiplied together. The top and bottom lines are multiplied separately. This gives 6*5 divided by N*(N-1). Worked out is 30 divided by N^2-N  We are told the probability is 1/3. Therefore  30/N^2-N = 1/3 Multiply both sides of the equation by N^2 - N , to simplify. This changes to 30 = N^2-N/3  Multiply both sides of the equation by 3, to simplify further. This gives 90 = N^2-N To get one side of the equation to equal zero, subtract 90 from both sides. This gives 0 = N^2-N - 90 Hope that clears it up.
    Posted by Benchmark
    One of my friends posted this question on FB and I have to admit I plagiarised your work to look smarter than I am.

    Many thanks :-)))

  • BenchmarkBenchmark Member Posts: 297
    edited June 2015
    The way I play poker, I'm used to people taking all that I have.

    ;o)
  • aussie09aussie09 Member Posts: 8,033
    edited June 2015
    In Response to Re: Toughest GCSE question ever?:
    To further explain, bearing in mind I'm just a grunt.. There are six orange sweets in the bag, so the odds of picking the first orange sweet is 6 divided by the number of sweets. We don't know that figure, so it's called 'N' (or x or y or z or anything). The chances of picking a second sweet are now five (one orange sweet less) divided by the number of sweets left in the bag, which is the total minus the one taken out (i.e. N-1) To get the chances for both sweets being orange, which are co-dependent, the chances are multiplied together. The top and bottom lines are multiplied separately. This gives 6*5 divided by N*(N-1). Worked out is 30 divided by N^2-N  We are told the probability is 1/3. Therefore  30/N^2-N = 1/3 Multiply both sides of the equation by N^2 - N , to simplify. This changes to 30 = N^2-N/3  Multiply both sides of the equation by 3, to simplify further. This gives 90 = N^2-N To get one side of the equation to equal zero, subtract 90 from both sides. This gives 0 = N^2-N - 90 Hope that clears it up.
    Posted by Benchmark
    brilliant.  best post award.




  • GELDYGELDY Member Posts: 5,203
    edited June 2015
    when i was a lad you did questions like that in your sleep

    but i bumped into carlo citrone today and he wasn't orange
    explain that one! 

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