IF WAS IN SMALL BLIND WITH 1000 CHIPS, AND MOVE ALL IN, THE BIG BLIND HAS 7000 CHIPS. DOES THIS MEEN I HAVE NO FOLD EQUITY, OR IS THE BIG BLIND HAVE NO FOLD EQUITY.
I THINK THE 1ST IS RIGHT, OR MY MATE WHO SAYS THE 2ND IS RIGHT.
IF WAS IN SMALL BLIND WITH 1000 CHIPS, AND MOVE ALL IN, THE BIG BLIND HAS 7000 CHIPS. DOES THIS MEEN I HAVE NO FOLD EQUITY, OR IS THE BIG BLIND HAVE NO FOLD EQUITY. I THINK THE 1ST IS RIGHT, OR MY MATE WHO SAYS THE 2ND IS RIGHT. Posted by phibaoptic
You are right. You have no (or little) fold equity when you shove and the potential caller(s) have you well covered and have the odds to call you with a wide range of hands.
Your mates right. You can win chips by your opponent folding, therefore you have fold equity. He cant win any by you folding, as it is impossible for you to fold, therefore has no fold equity.
Assuming the tournament is below the 500/1000 level and he has the option to fold.
Aha. Reread and it does rather matter what the blinds are. You always need to have at the very least more chips than the big blind to have any fold equity. Could be that neither of you have fold equity if say the blinds are 800/1600. You are first to act and CAN make the big blind fold - The big blind cannot put any more chips in to make you fold. Posted by Phantom66
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