Unless I am mistaken, Ivey or his associate asked the dealer to rotate certain cards and thats what enabled him to have an advantage... surely the casino should be aware of such techniques and simply not do it. What possible reason could the be for it other than advantage play? Is it possible the casino knew what was going on and basically freerolled themselves in the knowledge that if Ivey won they could withhold his winnings?
Think I am on Ivey's side. If the casino let him do it then the bets should stand regardless of whether he was gaining an advantage imo.
Comments
Complicated one though, has to be said.
Think I am on Ivey's side. If the casino let him do it then the bets should stand regardless of whether he was gaining an advantage imo.