. Step 3: Turning the percentage into pot odds. In the 84/16 shot, we will win roughly one in every six times. That makes us a 6/1 underdog. Always struggle with this bit - doesn't that make you a 5/1 underdog ?? Posted by clubhammer
Assuming we use the correct numbers (88:12, not 84: 16) we figure it out like this:
Take the percentage and make it into a fraction. So I win 12/100 but we can simplify this to 1.2/10 or around 1/8.3
NOTE: Odds is success to failure.
I will succeed 1 time and fail 8.3 so the odds = 1:7.3
How did I get 7.3? I take the total and subtract the number of times I will succeed. In this case it's 8.3 - 1 = 7.3.
So yes, I was wrong on that one too. Not that I am blaming multitasking for that, I simply forgot basic maths!
Pot odds: 10.5 v 5 or 2.1 v 1. We EASILY have the right odds to call here. We'd need to be a 6/4 underdog before we should even contemplate a fold. Get your money in already
in chip terms what wud it have to be to warrant a fod?
this is where bit confused im 60 percent fav to make my hand against the aces so less then 6/4 on my money
Step 2: Applying the Rule of Four and Two Probably the most important bit of poker maths to remember. Take how many outs you have and multiply it by four if you're on the flop or two if you're on the turn. This gives you a rough percentage of how many times you'll win this pot. In our example we have 3 outs x 4 = 12%. That means the opponent wins roughly 88% (chops and runners ignored).
I'd just like to say thanks for explaining this rule.
I've recently started playing poker more seriously and learning about pot odds. However, I used to think that you counted how many outs you had and then multiplied it by two, regardless of whether you were on the flop or turn. It was only the other night when I was watching the Poker League on Channel 4 in bed that I spotted something: one of the guy's percentage of winning after the flop was 14% and after the turn it went down to 7% (he never hit anything on the turn), so I started to wonder whether you are supposed to multiply your outs by four on the flop and then half it on the turn if you haven't hit any of your outs.
Thanks once again as I've probably folded a potentially decent hand by miscalculating my percentage of winning, but you live and learn I suppose, lol.
Just remember that it's only outs x 4 if you are calculating your chances of hitting on either the turn or river, i.e if you are calling an all-in on the flop or believe you will see the river card for free.
If you are working out if you can call a bet on the flop, and it is likely you will be faced with a further bet on the turn should you miss, then to compare your chances of winning to the pot odds offered, you still need to use outs x 2, i.e your percentage of hitting on the turn card only.
Comments
Take the percentage and make it into a fraction. So I win 12/100 but we can simplify this to 1.2/10 or around 1/8.3
NOTE: Odds is success to failure.
I will succeed 1 time and fail 8.3 so the odds = 1:7.3
How did I get 7.3? I take the total and subtract the number of times I will succeed. In this case it's 8.3 - 1 = 7.3.
So yes, I was wrong on that one too. Not that I am blaming multitasking for that, I simply forgot basic maths!
helps alot
like to ask tho..
Pot offered = 10,500. (5,500 + 5,000)
Our call = 5,000.
Pot odds: 10.5 v 5 or 2.1 v 1. We EASILY have the right odds to call here. We'd need to be a 6/4 underdog before we should even contemplate a fold. Get your money in already
in chip terms what wud it have to be to warrant a fod?
this is where bit confused im 60 percent fav to make my hand against the aces
so less then 6/4 on my money
300 to win another 450 wud also be a call yh?
If you are working out if you can call a bet on the flop, and it is likely you will be faced with a further bet on the turn should you miss, then to compare your chances of winning to the pot odds offered, you still need to use outs x 2, i.e your percentage of hitting on the turn card only.
Hope that makes sense