A question i have is why would say for example assuming full buyins 1 tabling NL4 with £80 would be deemed acceptable, however if i was multitabling 6 games with the same stake this would not be as i'm essentially playing with 25% of my roll, but this wouldn't matter? as you have 6 different games open so your not risking 25% of your roll at one time. I just don't see the logic in this, as the one tabler could play more than 6 times as frequently as the multitabler? Which would then see him play just as many hands?
of course the 1 tabler will be able to make more informed decisions, but the multitabler will surely cancel this out with how much less a bad beat would effect his plays.
I would appreciate a logical answer to this as its got me thinking for a while now.
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In Response to Re: multitabling bankroll management.:
/threadcut back
+1 Beanah -