@doh the chances of being dealt AK is 110 to 1, AKs is 331 to 1,the chances of being dealt any pair is 16 to 1, A's OR k's is 220 to 1 and if you are holding AK the chances of an opponent having A's or K's is relative to that! it is definitely not 40 to 1! removing an A and K and the deck to 50 cards doesn't reduce the odds by a factor of 5+. p.s remember doh that AK gets beat by any pair and even if you catch the flop with either or both there are many scenario's that will beat you. Posted by stoneface1
You appear to be unable to understand Dohhhhhhh's question.
Also the odds of being dealt AK are actually 82 to 1. The odds of being dealt AK offsuit are 110 to 1. (109.5 to 1 to be precise).
When copying statistics from a "crib sheet" it is generally wise to make sure that you do it correctly.
Maybe Im the one who doesnt understand my question.... Can u spell out in your words what question you answered Vince with 40/1? I swear I have an A level in English.....yet I can never explain myself. I just wanna know the chances someone holds AA OR KK at 6 handed table, when I have ACE KING Thats what u answered right? Posted by DOHHHHHHH
Exactly. You explained yourself perfectly - on this occasion ;-)))
I will expand on the answer that I gave because stoneface1 appears unable to grasp it and it may help him to explain why I am definitely wrong.
There are 50 cards left in the deck including 3 aces and 3 kings. The odds of one other person holding AA or KK is
2 * 5 * 3/50 * 2/49
3/50 is the probability that the first card that a person gets dealt is an ace. 2/49 is the probability that the second card that a person gets dealt is also an ace. Multiply this by 2 for aces or kings. Multiply this by 5 because any of the 5 players at the table can get this hand.
This gives the probability as 0.0245 which is approximately 40/1.
If you'd like any further clarification, please let me know.
In Response to Re: Odds question... : Exactly. You explained yourself perfectly - on this occasion ;-))) I will expand on the answer that I gave because stoneface1 appears unable to grasp it and it may help him to explain why I am definitely wrong. There are 50 cards left in the deck including 3 aces and 3 kings. The odds of one other person holding AA or KK is 2 * 5 * 3/50 * 2/49 3/50 is the probability that the first card that a person gets dealt is an ace. 2/49 is the probability that the second card that a person gets dealt is also an ace. Multiply this by 2 for aces or kings. Multiply this by 5 because any of the 5 players at the table can get this hand. This gives the probability as 0.0245 which is approximately 40/1. If you'd like any further clarification, please let me know. Posted by MereNovice
I'm not nit picking as i dont know, but is not 40/1 as a percentage 2.5% and not 0.0245%? Or is the figure not a percentage?? you got me confused now, which isn't that difficult i can tell you!
In Response to Re: Odds question... : I'm not nit picking as i dont know, but is not 40/1 as a percentage 2.5% and not 0.0245%? Or is the figure not a percentage?? you got me confused now, which isn't that difficult i can tell you! Posted by loonytoons
You can nit pick any time that you like. I'm more than happy to enter into a civil conversation with anyone.
0.0245 is a fraction and equates to 2.45%.
2.5% isn't quite 40 to 1; it is be 39 to 1 (to be precise). :-)))
I thought this a while ago when having a debate with someone. I think 0.01 equates to 1% 0.10 is 10%? 0.99 is 99% so 0.0245 = 2.45%? Posted by DOHHHHHHH
Bingo!! i think we got it through teamwork. You reckon 0.99 is 99% so i multiplied 0.0245 by 40 and it came in at 0.98!! thats near enough for me, i think.
I thought this a while ago when having a debate with someone. I think 0.01 equates to 1% 0.10 is 10%? 0.99 is 99% so 0.0245 = 2.45%? Posted by DOHHHHHHH
Yes. Exactly this.
Mathematicians generally express probabilities as a fraction.
Maybe Im the one who doesnt understand my question.... Can u spell out in your words what question you answered Vince with 40/1? I swear I have an A level in English.....yet I can never explain myself. I just wanna know the chances someone holds AA OR KK at 6 handed table, when I have ACE KING Thats what u answered right? Posted by DOHHHHHHH
In Response to Re: Odds question... : You can nit pick any time that you like. I'm more than happy to enter into a civil conversation with anyone. 0.0245 is a fraction and equates to 2.45%. 2.5% isn't quite 40 to 1; it is be 39 to 1 (to be precise). :-))) Posted by MereNovice
The chances of someone being dealt AA if you are dealt AK is the same as it is when you are dealt 72 or ATC. You are using probability wrong. In mathematical terms you are drawing cards at exactly the same time.
If you pick out AK then deal all the other cards then the maths changes but it's 220 to 1 for AA or KK each or 110 to 1 for either.
@mere novice i'm no longer trying to draw swords with you and yes i was getting my odds from a table, that some seem to agree with? if you have a 16 to 1 chance of getting any pair it cannot possibly be 40 to 1 to get 1 specific pair? i am not easily confused but with all the different comments i am willing to admit to being so??? i will check the tables again when i have lost a few more dollars to some insane calls and b.beats!!!
@mere novice i'm no longer trying to draw swords with you and yes i was getting my odds from a table, that some seem to agree with? if you have a 16 to 1 chance of getting any pair it cannot possibly be 40 to 1 to get 1 specific pair? i am not easily confused but with all the different comments i am willing to admit to being so??? i will check the tables again when i have lost a few more dollars to some insane calls and b.beats!!! Posted by stoneface1
There are five other people sitting at the table. The odds of one of them having AA or KK is 40 to 1.
In Response to Re: Odds question... : There are five other people sitting at the table. The odds of one of them having AA or KK is 40 to 1. Posted by MereNovice
Ok i agree with this but for you to also have AK and not any other hand at the same time must be more? (in my loony mind lool)
@mere novice 329 to 1 eh? yes the other ways are similarly improbable. thing is and not just for me but for others also these kind of beats happen with uncanny regularity. i wont bore you with the detail but i reckon i probably haven't seen 329 hands tonight but the same thing happened with Js and 2's, both required to win also. with those and many others received and seen again this evening i am going to learn and invest elsewhere. i would like to finish with a magnanimous comment and 'wish you well without prejudice', along with all skypoker players whether they agree or disagree with my scepticism! gl to you and all......:))
This is probably a really stupid question to ask as the answer may get me in alot of trouble. If I am dealt Ace King at a 6 handed table, what are the fractional odds of any opponent having pocket Kings or pocket aces? Thanx Posted by DOHHHHHHH
Just for fun - lets we take a look at how the situation would develop - I raise 4 bb with AK and get rr to 12 - i repop it to 30 and get reraised all in with effective stacks at 100 bb - now unless we know this is a complete maniac I reckon in the majority of cases we are looking at pairs of 10s upward or AK - I am getting 13/7 on a call. Assuming this is the situation (in terms of his hole cards) we create an imaginary 20 card deck. I make the call 100 times am I up or down?
In Response to Odds question... : Just for fun - lets we take a look at how the situation would develop - I raise 4 bb with AK and get rr to 12 - i repop it to 30 and get reraised all in with effective stacks at 100 bb - now unless we know this is a complete maniac I reckon in the majority of cases we are looking at pairs of 10s upward or AK - I am getting 13/7 on a call. Assuming this is the situation (in terms of his hole cards) we create an imaginary 20 card deck. I make the call 100 times am I up or down? Posted by AyrGraeme
HAHA, you aint played here often have ya lol? And in the majority of cases your looking at rag anything lool? (thats without making an imaginary 20 deck lol) 100 calls? your down babe!!! lol!!!
Just re-bumping this thread.... What are the odds on 1 specific card, for example, the ace of diamonds being dealt on the flop? Am I correct to assume its 2.2%x3 = 6.6%? eg, AhAs v AcKx..... The fractional odds of the case ace flopping? And one for fun... In a 6 max game, what r the chances of an opponent being delt AA v AK AND the flop coming ace high? Ty Posted by DOHHHHHHH
If you know four hole cards, the probability of any other specific card coming on the flop is 0.0625 (or 6.25% if you prefer). You were close but the probability of a card being dealt as any specific card in the flop is 0.0208 not 0.022. The odds change for the turn (0.0222) and river (0.0227) although the adjustments are so small that they make very little difference to any real time calculations.
The last part of your question is unclear. Do you want the odds knowing that you have AK (as before) or the odds of that particular event happening before a card is dealt. If the latter, is it you that has to be dealt the AK or are the AA and AK any two random players at the table?
Comments
Also the odds of being dealt AK are actually 82 to 1.
The odds of being dealt AK offsuit are 110 to 1. (109.5 to 1 to be precise).
When copying statistics from a "crib sheet" it is generally wise to make sure that you do it correctly.
Maybe Im the one who doesnt understand my question....
Can u spell out in your words what question you answered Vince with 40/1?
I swear I have an A level in English.....yet I can never explain myself.
I just wanna know the chances someone holds AA OR KK at 6 handed table, when I have ACE KING
Thats what u answered right?
You explained yourself perfectly - on this occasion ;-)))
I will expand on the answer that I gave because stoneface1 appears unable to grasp it and it may help him to explain why I am definitely wrong.
There are 50 cards left in the deck including 3 aces and 3 kings.
The odds of one other person holding AA or KK is
2 * 5 * 3/50 * 2/49
3/50 is the probability that the first card that a person gets dealt is an ace.
2/49 is the probability that the second card that a person gets dealt is also an ace.
Multiply this by 2 for aces or kings.
Multiply this by 5 because any of the 5 players at the table can get this hand.
This gives the probability as 0.0245 which is approximately 40/1.
If you'd like any further clarification, please let me know.
I thought this a while ago when having a debate with someone.
I think 0.01 equates to 1%
0.10 is 10%?
0.99 is 99%
so 0.0245 = 2.45%?
0.0245 is a fraction and equates to 2.45%.
2.5% isn't quite 40 to 1; it is be 39 to 1 (to be precise). :-)))
Mathematicians generally express probabilities as a fraction.
i'm no longer trying to draw swords with you and yes i was getting my odds from a table, that some seem to agree with? if you have a 16 to 1 chance of getting any pair it cannot possibly be 40 to 1 to get 1 specific pair? i am not easily confused but with all the different comments i am willing to admit to being so???
i will check the tables again when i have lost a few more dollars to some insane calls and b.beats!!!
The odds of one of them having AA or KK is 40 to 1.
i would like to finish with a magnanimous comment and 'wish you well without prejudice', along with all skypoker players whether they agree or disagree with my scepticism! gl to you and all......:))
Just re-bumping this thread....
What are the odds on 1 specific card, for example, the ace of diamonds being dealt on the flop?
Am I correct to assume its 2.2%x3 = 6.6%?
eg, AhAs v AcKx.....
The fractional odds of the case ace flopping?
And one for fun...
In a 6 max game, what r the chances of an opponent being delt AA v AK AND the flop coming ace high?
Ty
If you know four hole cards, the probability of any other specific card coming on the flop is 0.0625 (or 6.25% if you prefer). You were close but the probability of a card being dealt as any specific card in the flop is 0.0208 not 0.022. The odds change for the turn (0.0222) and river (0.0227) although the adjustments are so small that they make very little difference to any real time calculations.
The last part of your question is unclear.
Do you want the odds knowing that you have AK (as before) or the odds of that particular event happening before a card is dealt. If the latter, is it you that has to be dealt the AK or are the AA and AK any two random players at the table?